Why Pippin says 'gollum, gollum' to Grishnakh

[Lotesse]

This question arises fromthe chapter The Urukhai, out of The Two Towers. I have always wondered about it, and it occurred to me the other day to mention it in the Teacup Cafe - and then stuff happened, and I didn't get a chance to make this thread until now. I had some of you ask me to make the thread, so I guess I'm not the only one around here who has wondered about this!



FOCUS: How is it that Pippin knows to say "gollum, gollum," when he & Merry are being held captive by Grishnakh and Orcish company? Grishnakh gets pissed at Pippin, and he says to them, "Have you got it -either of you?" presumably, of course, Grishnahk was referring to the One Ring, and Pippin gets it in his head to mumble "gollum, gollum," followed by 'Nothing, my precious.' I swear I never remembered those two hobbits ever having been exposed to Smeagol/Gollum before, aside from hearing stories from Bilbo, so how would Pip even know that that was Smeagol/Gollum's weird Ring-having/wanting catchphrase?


OH! And why would Pippin even WANT to tease Grishnakh in the first place. How did Pip even know to say things in the manner of Smeagol, and why would he even want to push Grishnakh's buttons, anyway? Was it something eLSE making him say that? Some weird thought-force from a certain Maia, or - or something?