Did Saruman kill Radagast?

[Alcuin]

Then we’re still left with “what became of Radagast?� Some possibilities:

1. He’s dead. Maybe Saruman et alia killed him, or he fell off a moonbeam: he’s dead.
2. He ran away from home. Whether he returned or not might be material to Eärniel’s story, but not to Tolkien’s story.
3. He just wasn’t home when Elrond’s messengers arrived. Whether he returned or not might be material to Eärniel’s story, but still not to Tolkien’s story.
4. Something else besides 1, 2, or 3, not material to Tolkien’s story. (Suggestions welcome!)
5. He’s just a dangling loose end, still not material to Tolkien’s story.

Maybe he’s helping the Beornings and Woodmen of Mirkwood during the War of the Ring. It’s conceivable he misled or confused Sauron’s forces in the forest.

It does seem like there should be a note on Radagast’s fate somewhere in Tolkien’s papers, but I’ve not heard mention of it.

Originally Posted by Valandil

It might not have been so imperative for Saruman to kill Radagast after all. After all - with Gandalf's escape, his cover was blown. Saruman would now be known for who he was.

Even so, Gandalf spoke to Théoden on 20 September 3018, two days after his escape from Orthanc. From then until he spoke to Théoden again in company with Aragorn, Legolas, and Gimli on 2 March 3019, 164 days passed, almost 5½ months. Théoden not only failed to react to Saruman, under the influence of Wormtongue he arrested and imprisoned Éomer, then sat moribund while his son and heir Théodred was killed in battle by Saruman’s forces. His lethargy is to the credit of GrÃ*ma Wormtongue; nevertheless, Saruman’s cover was “blown,â€� as you eloquently put it, and no one did anything about it.

Doubtless Elrond learned of Saruman’s treachery soon after Gandalf reached Rivendell on 18 October 3018, four weeks after Gandalf spoke to Théoden about it. The Council of Elrond, including Gildor of Lindon, did not learn about Saruman for another week; and if (as seems likely) it took about two weeks for Elrond’s messengers to reach Lórien, Galadriel and Celeborn did not find out until almost mid-November, nearly two months after Gwaihir the Eagle plucked Gandalf from Saruman’s claws, unless Gwaihir informed them.

In fact, no one did anything about Saruman until Gandalf the White confronted him in Isengard on 5 March 3019. Only Théoden accused Saruman of specific misdeeds: the deaths of his son Théoden, of Hama, chief of his household guard, and of the women and children of Westfold; and attempting to usurp the rule of Rohan to himself.

In contrast, Gandalf’s reproach of Saruman is not detailed. He did tell him that he kept “a clear… memory of your arguments, and deeds,� that “your neighbors you have made your enemies; and you have cheated your new master, or tried to do so.� But his chief accusation immediately precedes his breaking Saruman’s staff: “You might still have turned away from folly and evil, and have been of service. But you choose to stay and gnaw the ends of your old plots.� Never once does Gandalf detail specific charges against Saruman: his primary purposes seem to have been

1. to redeem Saruman, if possible;
2. to “disarm� him, if he would not repent, apparently depriving him of many of his powers, perhaps by breaking his wizard’s staff; and
3. to cast him from the order of the Istari, which may just be restating the second reason.

Gandalf could have accused Saruman of all manner of wickedness: mixing Men and Orcs, maybe even killing Radagast or trying to, if he did; but the two specific reasons Gandalf gives for punishing Saruman are clinging to folly and evil, and rejecting repentance. For want of a better phrase: willful moral turpitude.

At best, Radagast remains a loose end. I still think Saruman sought to kill him. If he did, I don’t know that Gandalf would mention it at Orthanc.