What All Was Wrong with PJ's LOTR

[Jon S.]

This is my take on the situation and it's based entirely on intra-"cannon" sources (I know I've posted on this before but bear with me one more time).

1. The LOTR is expressly based on The Red Book of Westmarch.

2. The Red Book of Westmarch was written by hobbits

3. The hobbits idealized Faramir.

4. The people who write the history control what's in it.

5. The hobbits were motivated, in their version of history, to present Faramir super-nobly and to white-wash any indecision and foibles.

6. The "reality" (such as it is) was different.

7. How different and in what ways is objectively unknown.

8. Just as who rights history gets to control what's in it, who interprets history also controls what's in his own interpretation.

9. PJ interpreted the "history" of Faramir's encounter with the Ring differently from the hobbits who wrote the Red Book of Westmarch and, hence, from the LOTR book.

10. PJ's interpretation is reasonable.

11. People who judge interpretations get to choose their own judgments.

12. You judge the LOTR version to be "better," I the film version (actually, I judge them both equally wonderful BUT I find the PJ version more believable and hence more real.)

Tolkien can say whatever he wants in his letters about Faramir. It's information to consider but not binding in terms of "cannon."